(Mark 10:17-18) As
Jesus started on his way, a man ran up to him and fell on his knees before him.
“Good teacher,” he asked, “what must I do to inherit eternal life?” {18} “Why
do you call me good?” Jesus answered. “No one is good—except God alone.
Muslim : Jesus denied that he was sinless
In reference to Mark 10:17-18, Muslims sometimes misunderstand Jesus’ answer to be a denial of deity. In other words, they interpret Jesus to mean, “Why call me good when I am not? Only God is good.”
Christian reply
But Jesus cannot be
denying the title “good”. On other occasions, Jesus challenged the people to
prove him guilty of sin. In other words, he was emphasizing his goodness.
Muslims also believe that Jesus was a sinless prophet. He could not have denied
the reference to goodness. Therefore, Jesus was acknowledging the title “good”
but wanted to be doubly sure that when the young man called him “good” he must
first come to terms that he is God as no one is good except God.
Jesus taught that he has no sin; everything he does is
pleasing to God.
John 8:29, 46 “I always do what pleases Him (God). Can any of you prove me guilty of sin? I am telling you the truth, why don’t you believe me?”
The Devil had no part in His life at all, as He told
His disciples at the Last Supper.
John 14:30-31 I will not speak with you much longer, for the prince of this world is coming. He has no hold on me, but the world must learn that I love the Father and that I do exactly what my Father has commanded me.
Christian response
This statement makes no sense. We can then say that everyone is sinless – insofar as he obeys God.
It would also be senseless for Jesus to challenge them to prove him guilty of sin if he had indeed committed sins.
Muslims also believe that Jesus was a sinless prophet. It
is interesting to note that there is no mention whatsoever of sin in connection
with Jesus Christ even in the Quran. He could not have denied the reference to
goodness.
Therefore, Jesus was acknowledging the title “good” but
wanted to be doubly sure that when the young man called him “good” he must
first come to terms that he is God as no one is good except God.
The Bible indicates that Christ was not the only sinless person. Oftentimes, scripture uses the term "righteous" to indicate one who is blameless:
"And
they (Zachariah and Elizabeth) were righteous before God, walking in all
the commandments and ordinances of the Lord blameless." Luke 1:6
"My little
children, these things I write to you, that ye sin not. And if any man sin, we
have an advocate with the Father, Jesus Christ the righteous." 1 John 2:1
"I say unto you, that even so there will be more joy in heaven over one sinner that repenteth, more than over ninety and nine righteous persons, who need no repentance." Luke 15:7
"I came not to call the righteous, but sinners into repentance." Luke 5:32
"Little children, let no man deceive you: he that doeth righteousness is righteous, even as he is righteous." 1 John 3:7
Christian response
The word for "righteous" is the Greek term dikaioo. The word, dikaioo and its various forms, is a legal term used judicially to declare one just, not guilty. It does not mean one who is sinless.
Yes. But Jesus was not challenging the people to prove him guilty of major sins, he is challenging the people to prove him guilty of sin, any sin.
John 8:29,46 “I always do what pleases Him (God). Can any
of you prove me guilty of sin? I am telling you the truth, why don’t you
believe me?”
Among those who maintain that the prophets can commit only lesser sins, some say that they commit these sins before inspiration (Wahi) comes to them; others, that they may do so even after inspiration has come, but that such small sins being mere frailties and slight imperfections do not really amount to sin, properly so called: All these theological positions come into clash with the teaching of the quran.
Jesus Christ was born sinless, unlike the prophet David
who lamented his sinfulness saying, "In sin did my mother conceive
me" (Ps. 51:5).
The Quran seem to teach that even prophets are not free
from sin. Here are some of the references that show that even the prophets sin.
The quran refers to sins of various prophets from Adam to
Muhammad. Adam and Eve, on being convicted of sin, said:
"O our Lord, with ourselves we have dealt unjustly: if thou forgive us not and have not pity on us, we shall surely be of those who perish." (Sura 7:23)
Noah said: "Unless thou forgive me and be merciful to me, I shall be one of the lost." (Sura 11:47)
Abraham said: "When I am sick, He healeth me, and who will cause me to die, and quicken me, and who, I hope, will forgive me my sins in the day of reckoning." (Sura 26:80-82)
Moses murdered a man. This was brought about by the devil (Sura 28:15). He repented of this, his sin, and prayed: "O my Lord, I have sinned to my own heart, forgive me. Then He forgave him, Lo! He is the forgiving and merciful" (Sura 28:16).
Like the above-mentioned prophets, the prophet Muhammad also is advised to seek forgiveness for his sins:
Then have patience (O Muhammad). Lo! the promise of God is true. And ask forgiveness of thy sin, and hymn the praise of thy Lord at fall of night and early hours. (Sura 40:55, Pickethall)
Muslim commentators explain these and other similar passages from the quran in such a way as to suit a doctrine of innocence of the prophets. Thus in dealing with the reference as to their prophet's need for forgiveness (40:55), they give various explanations:
Some say that it refers to remission in the propagation of Islam; others to neglect in rendering thanks to God; but one popular explanation is that the Prophet was to seek pardon for sin merely as an act of worship and as an example of that confession of sin which was to be a portion of the worship rendered by his followers. If this explanation is not enough, then it is said that the word (dhanb) is used. It conveys the idea of a fault-only, or what is technically called a "little sin". The objection is that this word (dhanb) is used to describe the sin of ordinary people (9:103; 28:78; 12:29).
It is quite clear, in general, that the word used to describe the sin of Muhammad does not denote a mere trivial offense, but a great sin. Again, "Ask pardon for thy sins and for believers both men and women" (48:21), is similarly explained. (Edward Sell, Sin, Muslim ERE, Vol. 11, p. 568)
There is another passage which deserves mention:
Verily, we have won for thee a undoubted victory, in order that God might forgive thee that which went before of thy fault and what followed after. (Sura 48:1, 2)
The commentators have sought to explain the above-mentioned reference to the prophet's sin by saying that the "former fault" refers to the sin of Adam when Muhammad was yet in the loins of his great ancestor. The "later fault" is understood as sin of the followers of Muhammad (see Sell, ibid., p. 568).
There are traditions which record the prophet praying for the forgiveness of his sins: On the authority of Aisha it is reported that the prophet used often to say:
By the praise of God, pardon me: "O God, I ask pardon of thee for my offence, and I ask of thee thy mercy."
On the authority of Abu Huraira it is recorded that Muhammad said:
I ask pardon of God and repent [return] towards Him more than seventy times a day. (Mishkat al-Masabih. Quoted by Sell, ibid., pp. 568, 569)
In the same vein there is another tradition which deserves mention here:
The prophet of God said, "In the Day of Resurrection Muslims will not be able to move and they will be greatly distressed, and will say, 'Would to God that we had asked Him to create someone to intercede for us, that we might be taken from this place, and be delivered from tribulation and sorrow Then these men will go to Adam, and will say: 'Thou art the father of all men, God created thee with His hand, and made thee a dweller in Paradise, and ordered His angels to prostrate themselves before thee, and taught thee the name of all things. Ask grace for us we pray thee!' And Adam will say, 'I am not of that degree of eminence as you suppose, for I committed a sin in eating of the grain which was forbidden. Go to Noah, the prophet, he was the first who was sent by God to the unbelievers on the face of the earth.' Then they will go to Noah and ask for intercession, and he will say, 'I am not of that degree which ye suppose.' And he will remember the sin which he committed in asking the Lord for the deliverance of his Son Hud, not knowing whether it was a right request or not; And he will say, 'Go to Abraham, who is the Friend of God.' Then they will go to Abraham and he will say, 'I am not of that degree which ye suppose.' And he will remember the three occasions upon which he told lies in the world; and he will say, 'Go to Moses, who is the servant, to whom God gave His law and whom He allowed to converse with Him.' And they will go to Moses and Moses will say, 'I am not that degree which ye suppose.' And he will remember the sin which he committed in slaying a man, and he will say, 'Go to Jesus, he is the servant of God, the apostle of God, the Spirit of God and the Word of God.' Then they will go to Jesus, and he will say, 'Go to Muhammad who is a servant, whose sins God has forgiven both first and last.' " (Mishkat, Book XXITI, Chapter XIII)
Jesus told a lie. In John 7 he told his brothers he wasn't
going to a feast, but later did go, in secret. This is a 'sneaky' act, unworthy
of God. [Some texts have 'yet' in this the context to overcome this objection,
but this is certainly an editorial interpolation]
(John 7:3-10)
Jesus' brothers said to him, "You ought to leave here and go to
Judea, so that your disciples may see the miracles you do. {4} No one who wants
to become a public figure acts in secret. Since you are doing these things,
show yourself to the world." {5} For even his own brothers did not believe
in him. {6} Therefore Jesus told them, "The right time for me has not yet
come; for you any time is right. {7} The world cannot hate you, but it hates me
because I testify that what it does is evil. {8} You go to the Feast. I am not
yet (some early manuscripts do not have “yet”) going up to this Feast, because
for me the right time has not yet come." {9} Having said this, he stayed
in Galilee. {10} However, after his brothers had left for the Feast, he went
also, not publicly, but in secret.
Christian response
The context of the passage is important in understanding
what Jesus intended to say. His brothers had asked Jesus to go to Judea and publicly
performed miracles so that people would believe in him. Jesus’ reply in verse 8
is intended to say that he would not go to the Feast in a manner suggested by
them for the time is not ready yet (v 6). We know this because in verse 10, the
author wants to emphasize the fact that Jesus did go but secretly and not
publicly as his brothers had suggested.
Lk:14:26: If any man come to me, and hate not his father,
and mother, and wife, and children, and brethren, and sisters, yea, and his own
life also, he cannot be my disciple.
Since Jesus violates the commandment of God, how can he be
God?
Christian response
In biblical idiom to
hate can mean to love less. When, for example, regulations are laid down in
the Old Testament law for a man who has two wives, “one beloved, and another
hated” (Deut 21:15 kjv), it is
not necessary to suppose that he positively hates the latter wife; all that
need be meant is that he loves her less than the other and must be prevented
from showing favoritism to the other’s son when he allocates his property among
his heirs.
Jesus has always taught that one should love each other,
even one’s enemies! He scolded the theologians who argued that people who had
vowed to give God a sum of money that they later discovered was needed to help
their parents were not free to divert the money from the religious purposes to
which it had been vowed in order to meet a parental need. This, he said, was a
violation of the commandment to honor one’s father and mother (Mk 7:9-13).
That “hating” in this saying of Jesus means loving less is
shown by the parallel saying in Matthew 10:37: “Anyone who loves his father or
mother more than me is not worthy of me; anyone who loves his son or daughter
more than me is not worthy of me.”
Jesus received the baptism of repentance at the hands
of John, which involved a confession of sins, and thus set a seal on his own
sinfulness.
Baptism is the symbol of sins having been washed away. Jesus was baptised... this shows that before his baptism he was not perfectly righteous; and that's why after the baptism he saw the spirit of God coming upon him.
Christian response
For Him the incident signified His consecration to the office of Messiah; this was part of the "righteousness" He felt Himself under an obligation to fulfil. 14
(3) By this act Jesus identified Himself with the human race. cp. "Thus it becometh us to fulfil all righteousness"; and "it behoved Him in all things to become like unto His brethren". 15 That is to say, He was baptized as "Son of Man". He stood down with the crowds, identifying Himself with sinful men, yet remaining Himself "without sin".
He performed it, not the remotest suggestion that He felt He needed purification, nor yet any confession of sin.
His descent into hell, the abode of the wicked, is also
recognized by the Christians, than which no plainer proof is needed of the
guiltiness of Jesus.
Christian response
(1 Pet 3:18-19 NIV) For Christ died for sins once for all, the righteous for the unrighteous, to bring you to God. He was put to death in the body but made alive by the Spirit, {19} through whom also he went and preached to the spirits in prison
Jesus descended into hell not because he sinned but he did so to proclaim to the spirits in hell about his victory.
"Jesus uttered words of unbelief in God, saying: 'My God, My God, Why hast thou forsaken me' "?
Christian response
Jesus’ words did not reflect his lack of faith. God the Father indeed forsaken him because Jesus bore the sins of the world on the cross.
Some Muslims refer to the doctrine of Original Sin and
impose upon Jesus the general sinfulness of the race. They infer that certainly
birth from one parent does not give that immunity.
Christian response
Christians believe that Jesus was not born with sin. If he was, he would not be able to teach in other areas of the Bible that he had no sin.
Furthermore, the doctrine that Jesus was born in sin has no support even in the Quran.
And the quran
itself makes Gabriel say to Mary that she is to have "a holy
son", ghulaman zakiyyan, 19 : 19; which baidhawi interprets to mean pure
from sin, and active in goodness.
He "was addicted to drinking", and "opened the way to excess and wholesale drunkenness" (through the use of wine at the Last Supper).
Christian response
There isn’t a verse in the Bible that mentions Jesus being addicted to wine.
The use of wine for the Last Supper is as a symbolism to his blood. Nowhere did he encourage his disciples to drink excessively.
The Bible does not prohibit drinking of wine. It prohibits excessive drinking leading to drunkenness.
He "insulted his mother" (in addressing her as "woman").
(John 2:3-4 NIV) When the wine was gone, Jesus' mother said to him, "They have no more wine." {4} "Dear woman, why do you involve me?" Jesus replied. "My time has not yet come."
Christian response
Firstly, the term “woman” is not a degrading term. It is generic term that Jesus used even when he is praising somebody.
(Mat 15:28 NIV) Then Jesus answered, "Woman, you have great faith! Your request is granted." And her daughter was healed from that very hour.
We must not forget that Jesus is also God. Being a son, we can argue that it is rude to call Mary anything other than mother. But being God, Jesus can call humans by any term he likes. In this case, he chose to use the term “woman” which in itself is not a degrading term.
(Mat 23:33-35 NIV) "You snakes! You brood of vipers! How will you escape being condemned to hell? {34} Therefore I am sending you prophets and wise men and teachers. Some of them you will kill and crucify; others you will flog in your synagogues and pursue from town to town. {35} And so upon you will come all the righteous blood that has been shed on earth, from the blood of righteous Abel to the blood of Zechariah son of Berekiah, whom you murdered between the temple and the altar.
(Mat 23:27 NIV) "Woe to you, teachers of the law and Pharisees, you hypocrites! You are like whitewashed tombs, which look beautiful on the outside but on the inside are full of dead men's bones and everything unclean.
Christian response
Jesus was describing the true state of the Pharisees, who appear righteous on the outside but are not right towards God on the inside.
(Luke 7:37-38 NIV) When a woman who had lived a sinful life in that town learned that Jesus was eating at the Pharisee's house, she brought an alabaster jar of perfume, {38} and as she stood behind him at his feet weeping, she began to wet his feet with her tears. Then she wiped them with her hair, kissed them and poured perfume on them.
Christian response
Jesus let a prostitute worship him by pouring perfume over his feet and kissing it. There is nothing sexual about this.
In fact, Jesus led a life undistracted by sexual activities. He did not marry nor did he take on any concubines.
It is argued that Jesus committed sin when he broke the Sabbath laws.
Christian response
Jesus’ reply to those who criticized his disciples for plucking ears of grain as they walked through the fields one sabbath and then (according to Lk 6:1) eating the grain when they had rubbed the ears in their hands to separate the kernel from the husk. Harmless enough actions, it might be supposed today (unless the owner of the crop complained that he was being robbed), but plucking the ears was technically regarded by the interpreters of the law as a form of reaping, and rubbing them to extract the kernel as a form of grinding, and reaping and grinding were two kinds of work that were forbidden on the sabbath. Probably, in addition to the expressed criticism of the disciples, there was an implied criticism of Jesus for allowing them to break the law in this way.
Jesus first invoked a precedent: in an emergency David had been permitted by the priest in charge of the sanctuary at Nob (perhaps on Mount Scopus; near Jerusalem) to have some of the holy bread (the “shewbread” or “bread of the [divine] presence”) for himself and his followers to eat, although it was laid down in the law that none but priests should eat it (1 Sam 21:1-6). The point of Jesus’ argument here seems to be that human need takes priority over ceremonial law; it is relevant to recall that in traditional interpretation (though not in the Old Testament text) the incident from the life of David took place on a sabbath (the day when, according to Lev 24:8-9, the old bread was to be removed, to be eaten by “Aaron and his sons . . . in a holy place,” and replaced by new bread, “set in order before the Lord”). (Source: Hard Sayings of the Bible)
(Mat 8:30-32 NIV) Some distance from them a large herd of pigs was feeding. {31} The demons begged Jesus, "If you drive us out, send us into the herd of pigs." {32} He said to them, "Go!" So they came out and went into the pigs, and the whole herd rushed down the steep bank into the lake and died in the water.
Christian response
Jesus, being God, is sovereign. He has the right to act on properties as he pleased. An example would be the acquisition of the donkey in Palm Sunday.
(Mat 21:1-3 NIV) As they approached Jerusalem and came to Bethphage on the Mount of Olives, Jesus sent two disciples, {2} saying to them, "Go to the village ahead of you, and at once you will find a donkey tied there, with her colt by her. Untie them and bring them to me. {3} If anyone says anything to you, tell him that the Lord needs them, and he will send them right away."
Jesus Christ is the only person in the Bible about whom sin is not mentioned at all, either in prophecies concerning Him or the actual account of His matchless life!
John the beloved apostle testified, "Ye know that he was manifested to take away our sins; and in him is no sin" (1 John 3:5).
Peter summed up his impressions in a sermon on the day of Pentecost when he called Jesus "The Holy and Righteous One" (Acts 3:14). Again, in one of his epistles he wrote, "Christ also hath once suffered for our sins, the just for the unjust" (1 Pet. 3:18).
The testimony of Paul, who met the risen Christ first on the road to Damascus, was in harmony with the testimony of those who knew Him in flesh. He says that Jesus Christ knew no sin (2 Cor. 5:21).
Again, the Epistle to the Hebrews says that He was "holy, guileless, undefiled, separated from sinners" (Heb. 7:26).
In John 17:5, Jesus asked his Father to “glorify me in your presence with the glory I had with you before the world began.”
The Bible teaches that God shares His glory with no one.
(Isa 42:8 NIV) "I am the LORD; that is my name! I will
not give my glory to another or my praise to idols.
Muslims have explained that this verse simply shows that Jesus was glorified by God in his timeless knowledge before the creation of the world.
Christian reply
This cannot be the right interpretation. Firstly, the words ‘I had’ is used. It is not something abstract in God’s mind, but something Jesus actually possessed. Secondly, the words “I had” and not “I have” is used. If Jesus was gloried only in God’s knowledge, and this glorified knowledge existed even before the world began, then why did Jesus use “I had” implying that he no longer did not have it when he was asking. The fact that Jesus asked his Father to glorify him at that point also showed that he did not have the glory that he used to have. How would the Muslim explain this? A Christian has no difficulty because we believe that Jesus emptied himself of many things before he came to this world. Thirdly, the words ‘with thee’ is used. This does not sound like foreknowledge? Jesus was essentially saying either, “the glory I had when I was with you” or “the glory I was sharing or experiencing with you”.
Christian response
If everyone else
was spiritually created, why did Jesus say that he existed even before Abraham?
(John 8:57-59 NIV) "You are not yet fifty years old," the Jews said to him, "and you have seen Abraham!" {58} "I tell you the truth," Jesus answered, "before Abraham was born, I am!" {59} At this, they picked up stones to stone him, but Jesus hid himself, slipping away from the temple grounds.
Jesus asserted His divinity by the use of the present tense “I am”. If He had only wanted to say He had existed before Abraham, He would have used “I was”.
Upon hearing this, the Jews picked up stones to stone him because they equated this to blasphemy. They understood Jesus was claiming to be the forever existent God.
Jeremiah 1:5 “Before I (God) formed you in the womb, I knew
you before you were born I set you apart; I appointed you as a prophet to the
nation.”
Christian reply
Muslims are right in saying that the above verse shows
that Jeremiah existed in God’s foreknowledge only. The words “before I formed
you” tells us that Jeremiah had not actually existed yet. But Jn 8:58 could not
have been referring to Jesus existing in the foreknowledge of God since God,
who is all knowing, would also have foreknown Abraham. How could God who is
all-knowing have foreknown Jesus before he foreknew Abraham, never mind who was
born first. (It is even more unlikely since Abraham was born first.) Therefore
Jn 8:58 could only mean that Jesus pre-existed with God.
When Jesus claimed to be eternally existent with God, it
is a claim to deity. If one is not God, how can one be eternally existent with
God?
Jesus said, "I saw Satan fall like lightning from heaven" (Luke 10.18). Muslims believe, following the Quran (Surah 7.8) that Satan was cast down in disgrace right at the beginning of creation. When Jesus said that he saw him fall, it was his way of saying "I was there, I saw it happen" - a telling testimony to his presence in heaven even from the beginning of the world.
Some people argue that Jesus did not claim to be God and that this idea of an eternally existent being coming to earth is something which Christians invented because they misinterpreted Jesus’ sayings. But not so. We can find such statements even in the Old Testament.
But you, O Bethlehem Ephrathah, who are little to be among the clans of Judah, from you shall come forth for me one who is to be ruler in Israel, whose origin is from of old, from ancient days. Micah 5.2
When one talks about a being from ancient days, he is referring to God himself.
(Isa 43:12-13 NIV) I have revealed and saved and proclaimed-- I, and not some foreign god among you. You are my witnesses," declares the LORD, "that I am God. {13} Yes, and from ancient days I am he. No one can deliver out of my hand. When I act, who can reverse it?"
(Dan 7:9 NIV) "As I looked, "thrones were set in place, and the Ancient of Days took his seat. His clothing was as white as snow; the hair of his head was white like wool. His throne was flaming with fire, and its wheels were all ablaze.
(John 8:23) But he
continued, “You are from below; I am from above. You are of this world; I am
not of this world.
Jesus says plainly that he comes from heaven. He is not
like men who are from this world.
(John 15:19) If you belonged to the world, it would love you as its own. As it is, you do not belong to the world, but I have chosen you out of the world. That is why the world hates you.
Christian reply
The two verses uses similar language but a closer examination shows that they are talking about two different things. In the first verse, Jesus says that the disciples are of this world, only he is not. And the reason he is not is because he is from heaven while they are not.
In the second verse, Jesus says that his disciples are not
from this world, not in the sense that they come from heaven (the first verse
already tells that they don’t) but in the sense that their lifestyle and
worldview is totally different from the world, just as Jesus’ lifestyle and
worldview is.
Therefore when Jesus said in John 8:23 that only he is not from this world but from heaven, it is a significant statement and a claim to deity.
Christian
response
Where is this
doctrine taught in either the Bible or the Quran?
(Luke 22:70 NIV) They all asked, "Are you then the Son of God?" He replied, "You are right in saying I am."
(Mat 26:63-64 NIV) But Jesus remained silent. The high priest said to him, "I charge you under oath by the living God: Tell us if you are the Christ, the Son of God." {64} "Yes, it is as you say," Jesus replied. "But I say to all of you: In the future you will see the Son of Man sitting at the right hand of the Mighty One and coming on the clouds of heaven."
Muslim response
Jesus did not admit to be the Son of God. He calls himself the Son of Man.
Christian response
Jesus uses the term Son of Man and Son of God interchangeable to refer to himself.
(Luke 22:70 KJV) Then said they all, Art thou then the Son of God? And he said unto them, Ye say that I am.
(Mat 26:63-64 KJV) But Jesus held his peace. And the high priest answered and said unto him, I adjure thee by the living God, that thou tell us whether thou be the Christ, the Son of God. {64} Jesus saith unto him, Thou hast said: nevertheless I say unto you, Hereafter shall ye see the Son of man sitting on the right hand of power, and coming in the clouds of heaven.
In other words, Jesus did not say that he is the Son of God. Jesus only says that they say he is the Son of God.
Christian response
Jesus could not be saying, “Pilate, you are the one who
says I am the Son of God. I did not actually say that.” This is because Jesus
had on other occasions admitted that he is the Son of God.
Christian reply
On examination of the Greek text, the KJV seems to be more accurate in translating the words of Jesus. Taken by itself the reply of Jesus is quite neutral. Jesus is not saying emphatically in those two verses that he is the Son of God.
Since it is a neutral statement by itself, Jesus is also not denying that he is the Son of God. In other words, Jesus is not saying, “You are the one that said I am the Son of God. I did not say that.”
Since the statement is neutral, we need to examine the context to see whether Jesus is agreeing with the questioner’s claim that he is the Son of God. We also need to examine what Jesus meant when he referred to himself as the Son of God in that instance.
(Mat 26:62-64 KJV) And the high priest arose, and said unto him, Answerest thou nothing? what is it which these witness against thee? {63} But Jesus held his peace. And the high priest answered and said unto him, I adjure thee by the living God, that thou tell us whether thou be the Christ, the Son of God. {64} Jesus saith unto him, Thou hast said: nevertheless I say unto you, Hereafter shall ye see the Son of man sitting on the right hand of power, and coming in the clouds of heaven.
Could Jesus be saying, “I am not the Son of God but you shall me sitting at the right hand of power and coming in the clouds of heaven.”
Or could he be saying that he is only a follower of God but the people will nonetheless see him at the right hand of power and coming in the clouds?
Surely this is an inconsistent interpretation. It is not logical to come to this conclusion and even the hearer of these words did not come to that conclusion for we are told:
(Mat 26:65-66 KJV) Then the high priest rent his clothes, saying, He hath spoken blasphemy; what further need have we of witnesses? behold, now ye have heard his blasphemy. {66} What think ye? They answered and said, He is guilty of death.
Let’s look at the account of Luke.
(Luke 22:67-70 KJV) Art thou the Christ? tell us. And he said unto them, If I tell you, ye will not believe: {68} And if I also ask you, ye will not answer me, nor let me go. {69} Hereafter shall the Son of man sit on the right hand of the power of God. {70} Then said they all, Art thou then the Son of God? And he said unto them, Ye say that I am.
Again, based on the context, Jesus could not be denying the Sonship of God and still talk about the splendor he is entitled to.
And logically, the hearers of Jesus’ reply came to the expected conclusion that he is proclaiming blasphemy.
71 And they said, What need we any further witness? for we ourselves have heard of his own mouth. 23:1 And the whole multitude of them arose, and led him unto Pilate.
(Mat 4:3-7 NIV) The tempter came to him and said, "If you are the Son of God, tell these stones to become bread." {4} Jesus answered, "It is written: 'Man does not live on bread alone, but on every word that comes from the mouth of God.'" {5} Then the devil took him to the holy city and had him stand on the highest point of the temple. {6} "If you are the Son of God," he said, "throw yourself down. For it is written: "'He will command his angels concerning you, and they will lift you up in their hands, so that you will not strike your foot against a stone.'" {7} Jesus answered him, "It is also written: 'Do not put the Lord your God to the test.'"
(Mat 14:30-33 NIV) But when he saw the wind, he was afraid and, beginning to sink, cried out, "Lord, save me!" {31} Immediately Jesus reached out his hand and caught him. "You of little faith," he said, "why did you doubt?" {32} And when they climbed into the boat, the wind died down. {33} Then those who were in the boat worshiped him, saying, "Truly you are the Son of God."
(Mat 16:16-17 NIV) Simon Peter answered, "You are the Christ, the Son of the living God." {17} Jesus replied, "Blessed are you, Simon son of Jonah, for this was not revealed to you by man, but by my Father in heaven.
(Mark 3:11-12 NIV) Whenever the evil spirits saw him, they fell down before him and cried out, "You are the Son of God." {12} But he gave them strict orders not to tell who he was.
(John 1:49-50 NIV) Then Nathanael declared, "Rabbi, you are the Son of God; you are the King of Israel." {50} Jesus said, "You believe because I told you I saw you under the fig tree. You shall see greater things than that."
(John 11:25-27 NIV) Jesus said to her, "I am the resurrection and the life. He who believes in me will live, even though he dies; {26} and whoever lives and believes in me will never die. Do you believe this?" {27} "Yes, Lord," she told him, "I believe that you are the Christ, the Son of God, who was to come into the world."
(Rom 1:1-4 NIV) Paul, a servant of Christ Jesus, called to be an apostle and set apart for the gospel of God-- {2} the gospel he promised beforehand through his prophets in the Holy Scriptures {3} regarding his Son, who as to his human nature was a descendant of David, {4} and who through the Spirit of holiness was declared with power to be the Son of God by his resurrection from the dead: Jesus Christ our Lord.
(John 5:21-26 NIV)
For just as the Father raises the dead and gives them life, even so the
Son gives life to whom he is pleased to give it….{24} "I tell you the
truth, whoever hears my word and believes him who sent me has eternal life and
will not be condemned; he has crossed over from death to life. {25} I tell you
the truth, a time is coming and has now come when the dead will hear the voice
of the Son of God and those who hear will live. {26} For as the Father has life
in himself, so he has granted the Son to have life in himself.
(John 3:16-18 NIV) "For God so loved the world that he gave his one and only Son, that whoever believes in him shall not perish but have eternal life. {17} For God did not send his Son into the world to condemn the world, but to save the world through him. {18} Whoever believes in him is not condemned, but whoever does not believe stands condemned already because he has not believed in the name of God's one and only Son.
(Luke 1:35) The angel answered, "The Holy Spirit will come upon you, and the power of the Most High will overshadow you. So the holy one to be born will be called the Son of God.
John 20:31 But these are written that you may believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God, and that by believing you may have life in his name.
(Mark 1:1 NIV) The beginning of the gospel about Jesus Christ, the Son of God.
(John 1:33-34 NIV) I would not have known him, except that the one who sent me to baptize with water told me, 'The man on whom you see the Spirit come down and remain is he who will baptize with the Holy Spirit.' {34} I have seen and I testify that this is the Son of God."
Muslims do not usually object to Christians calling Jesus
“Son of God” as long as it is used in the figurative sense and not to imply
deity. According to Muslims, the term “Son of God” does not have to connate
deity. For example, the word “son” can refer to such things as “believers”,
“angels”, etc.
(John 1:12) Yet to
all who received him, to those who believed in his name, he gave the right to
become children of God--
(Job 1:6) Now
there was a day when the *sons of God* (ie angels) came to present themselves
before the LORD, and Satan came also among them.
Here “sons of God” refer to angels and is so translated in
the New International version.
(Job 1:6 NIV) One
day the *angels* came to present themselves before the LORD, and Satan also
came with them.
Besides referring to angels, it is also used to refer to
messengers of God.
(John 10:33-36 NIV) "We are not stoning you for any of these," replied the Jews, "but for blasphemy, because you, a mere man, claim to be God." {34} Jesus answered them, "Is it not written in your Law, 'I have said you are gods'? {35} If he called them 'gods,' to whom the word of God came--and the Scripture cannot be broken-- {36} what about the one whom the Father set apart as his very own and sent into the world? Why then do you accuse me of blasphemy because I said, 'I am God's Son'?
Muslims say that the term “son of God” refers to nothing more than those who are followers of God be they angels, men, etc.
When Jesus describes his sonship, he uses the word
“begotten”. The word “begotten” came from the Greek word “monogenes” which
carries two related meanings. One is that of “one and only one”. We see several
instances when the Bible described how Jesus healed somebody’s only child, and
how important that child was to that person because he/she is the only one.
(Luke 9:38) And,
behold, a man of the company cried out, saying, Master, I beseech thee, look upon
my son: for he is mine only child. (see also Luke 7:12, 8:42)
The word “monogenes” also carries the meaning of “unique,
special, one of a kind”.
(Heb 11:17) By
faith Abraham, when he was tried, offered up Isaac: and he that had received
the promises offered up his only begotten son.
We all know that Isaac was not Abraham’s only son as he
had another son called Ishmael. Yet the Bible uses “monogenes” to refer to
Isaac because of Isaac’s special position. He was born of Abraham’s wife while
Ishmael was born of Abraham’s maid. Another reason why Isaac is unique as
compared to Ishmael is because Isaac was promised the covenant of God.
(Gen 17:19) Then God said, "Yes, but your wife Sarah will bear you a son, and you will call him Isaac. I will establish my covenant with him as an everlasting covenant for his descendants after him.
Keeping these two meanings of the word “monogenes” in
mind, we know that Jesus cannot be referring to himself as a mere believer of
God or even a prophet or angel when he uses the term “only begotten” to
describe his sonship. There is nothing unique about being a believer of God or
an angel nor is there one and only one believer or angel in this world.
I am my father’s son. (Nothing special about that.)
I am my father’s only son because I don’t have any
brothers. (Nothing special about that.)
I am God’s son. (Nothing special about that.)
BUT I cannot say that I am God’s only son.
If a Muslim leader says that he is God’s only son, he will
probably be executed for blasphemy. In his defense, can he say, “But isn’t a
believer in Allah considered as God’s son?” If he said that, wouldn’t the
Muslims say, “If that is true, aren’t we all God’s sons? What gives you the
right to call yourself God’s only Son?”
Therefore we cannot dismiss the impact of Jesus’ claim
that he is God’s only son by breaking up all the words separately. No God
fearing man makes that claim. Not even Muhammad.
“son of God” in Jesus’ case cannot be referring to “messenger of God”
In John 10:35, we know that the Jews used the term
"gods" to refer to those who brought the word of God. Since there are
many people in history who have brought the word of God, Jesus could not be
referring to himself as merely a messenger of God when he refers to himself as
the only son. He must be referring to himself in a special way.
Jesus says that the son is the only one who has first-hand
knowledge of God the father.
(Mat 11:27) "All things have been committed to me by my Father. No one knows the Son except the Father, and no one knows the Father except the Son and those to whom the Son chooses to reveal him.
Muslim reply
We understand the "son of God" to mean those
who are led by God".
Christian reply
Jesus was only
referring to himself in Matt 11:27. He was not referring to all believers in
God.
“All things have
been committed to *me*. The revelation and knowledge of the Father has been committed
to him because no one knows the Father except the *Son* and those to whom the
*Son* chooses to reveal.
The use of “son”
here is also singular. Therefore it is not saying only the “sons of God” or
believers of God will know Him.
(Mat 28:19)
Therefore go and make disciples of all nations, baptizing them in the
name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit,
If he is one of the many sons - meaning angels, believers
- why only his name is to be invoked, and why alongside the name of God?
Some Muslims point out that this verse may not be authentic, ie a later insertion into the Bible.
Christian reply
But one knows that a verse is a later insertion when one finds the same passage in an older manuscript which does not contain the verse. So far that has not happened to prove that the verse is not authentic.
Another argument is that the book of Acts describe the early Christians as baptizing in the name of Jesus only (implying Luke did not know of the baptismal formula containing the three names?).
Christian reply
I believe that the leaving out of the long baptismal
formula was simply for brevity reasons. We see Peter doing exactly this when he
lumped them all together and said “in the name of the Lord”. The word “Lord”
here is “kurios”, the Greek translation of Jehovah, the name of God.
(Acts 10:48) And
he commanded them to be baptized in the name of the Lord.
Just because Luke did not spell out the whole baptismal
formula when he wrote about the incidents does not prove that when the baptism
was carried out, the full declaration of all three names was not done.
Shortening the expression by Luke is likely if the baptismal formula was
already well known.
Likewise it is wrong to think that because Mark’s
gospel (which may be the first one written) did not describe the declaration of
the three names, Matthew must have invented it himself. The gospel of Mark and
Matthew are not identical. It is simplistic to conclude that everything found
in Matthew, and not found in Mark, is an interpolation. When one reads Mark’s
reiteration of Jesus’ command, we could see that he could have left out the
full declaration for brevity reasons.
(Mark 16:15-16)
He said to them, "Go into all the world and preach the good news to
all creation. {16} Whoever believes and is baptized will be saved, but whoever
does not believe will be condemned.
The word “baptized” (in its various word forms) is
found 34 times in the New Testament (excluding the gospels) but only on 6
occasions do we even have the mention of Jesus’ name during the baptism. It is
common to just speak about baptism without having to come out with a lengthy
phrase each time.
Jesus
also claims that his sonship qualifies him to be the giver of life.
(John
5:21-26 NIV) For just as the Father
raises the dead and gives them life, even so the Son gives life to whom he is
pleased to give it….{24} "I tell you the truth, whoever hears my word and
believes him who sent me has eternal life and will not be condemned; he has
crossed over from death to life. {25} I tell you the truth, a time is coming
and has now come when the dead will hear the voice of the Son of God and those
who hear will live. {26} For as the Father has life in himself, so he has
granted the Son to have life in himself.
No
one can raise himself from the dead because he does not have life in himself.
Jesus said that he could raise himself up from the dead.
(John
10:17-18) The reason my Father loves me
is that I lay down my life--only to take it up again. {18} No one takes it from
me, but I lay it down of my own accord. I have authority to lay it down and
authority to take it up again. This command I received from my Father."
(John
10:27-28) My sheep listen to my voice;
I know them, and they follow me. {28} I give them eternal life, and they shall
never perish; no one can snatch them out of my hand.
Muslim
reply
"O
ye who believe! Respond unto Allah and His Messenger when He calls you to that
which quickens you; and know that Allah comes in between a man and his own
heart; and that He it is unto Whom ye shall be gathered." Quran
8:24.
We
believe that it is God who gives life and "quickens" the spiritually
dead. But He might do so through the Messengers.
Christian
reply
Jesus
was not referring to proclaiming the message of life through God. He is talking
about possessing the power of life *in himself* (v 26) and being able to give
that life (not just preached the method to obtain that life).
(John
10:28 NIV) I give them eternal life,
and they shall never perish; no one can snatch them out of my hand.
Muslim
reply
It is
God who gives life and He may give His power to whomsoever he
chooses. But it is still His power and can be withdrawn.
{26}
For as the Father has life in himself, so he has *granted* the Son to have life
in himself.
We see that Jesus, when speaking of his sonship, is doing
so in no ordinary terms. Even the Jews understood his claim to be “Son of God”
to be one claiming equality with God.
(John 5:18) For
this reason the Jews tried all the harder to kill him; not only was he breaking
the Sabbath, but he was even calling God his own Father, making himself equal
with God.
Some men came carrying a paralytic on a mat and tried
to take him into the house to lay him before Jesus. When they could not find a
way to do this because of the crowd, they went up on the roof and lowered him
on his mat through the tiles into the middle of the crowd, right in front of
Jesus. When Jesus saw their faith, he said, "Friend, your sins are
forgiven." The Pharisees and the teachers of the law began thinking to
themselves, "Who is this fellow who speaks blasphemy? Who can forgive sins
but God alone?" Jesus knew what they were thinking and asked, "Why
are you thinking these things in your hearts? Which is easier: to say, `Your
sins are forgiven,' or to say, `Get up and walk'? But that you may know that
the Son of Man has authority on earth to forgive sins...." He said to the
paralyzed man, "I tell you, get up, take your mat and go home."
Immediately he stood up in front of them, took what he had been lying on and
went home praising God. Everyone was amazed and gave praise to God. They were
filled with awe and said, "We have seen remarkable things today. (Luke
5:18-26)
We can all forgive our brother who has wronged against us. We cannot forgive a brother who has sinned against others and against God. Yet Jesus met a man, whom he has never met, and forgave his sins. Everyone protested knowing that only God could do this.
In Muslim belief, no one has the right to forgive except Allah alone. Even though Muhammad was commanded to pray for forgiveness for someone else (Al-Imran 3:159; an-Nur 24:62; al-Mumtahanah 60:12), yet, this is no guarantee that Allah will forgive (at-Taubah 9:80; al-Munafiqun 63:6).
The Bible teaches that only God can judge the world.
(Psa 50:4-6 NIV) He (God) summons the heavens above, and the earth, that he may judge his people… {6} And the heavens proclaim his righteousness, for God himself is judge.
Jesus said that the Father judges no one but all judgment is his.
(John 5:22 NIV) Moreover, the Father judges no one, but has entrusted all judgment to the Son,
It is strange that people in the 20th century
read the words of Jesus in a translated language and say that Jesus never claim
to be God when we are told clearly that the Jews of Jesus’ time, who heard the
original sayings of Jesus in their language and in their context, understood
that he was claiming to be God. Many times the Bible tells us that the Jews
tried to kill Jesus precisely because they knew that he was claiming to be God.
(John 10:33) “We
are not stoning you for any of these,” replied the Jews, “but for blasphemy,
because you, a mere man, claim to be God.”
(Luke 5:21) The
Pharisees and the teachers of the law began thinking to themselves, “Who is
this fellow who speaks blasphemy? Who can forgive sins but God alone?”
(Mat 26:65) Then
the high priest tore his clothes and said, “He has spoken blasphemy! Why do we
need any more witnesses? Look, now you have heard the blasphemy.
Therefore a person today who insists that Jesus did not
claim to be God fails to appreciate the force of Jesus’ statement during the
time it was spoken.
Muslims have argued that the Jews may have misunderstood
Jesus. They have interpreted his claims to be one of claiming equality with God
when actually Jesus did not. But could the Jews have interpreted wrongly? We
have to examine the cases one by one.
In John 10, the Jews tried to kill Jesus because he
claimed to be the Son of God (see verse 36). This is not a misunderstanding
because we have seen above that Jesus’ sonship is no ordinary one and it carries
the trademarks of deity. And the Jews understood this.
In Luke 5, the Jews tried to kill Jesus because they
understood his claim to be able to forgive sins to be a claim of equality with
God. Again this is a valid interpretation. The Bible portrays God as the only
One who can forgive sins. I am sure Muslim will agree that Allah is the only
One who has the authority to forgive sins.
Sure, we can forgive others for the wrong they did to us but we do not
have the authority to forgive others for the wrong they did towards others and
towards God. This is exactly what Jesus did. Is Jesus only proclaiming that
person’s forgiveness in accordance with what the Father has instructed him?
(John 12:49 For I did not speak of my
own accord, but the Father who sent me commanded me what to say and how to say
it.) No, according to the text, this is not the case. Jesus was not merely
proclaiming that person’s forgiveness. He said he possess the authority to
actually forgive that person’s sins. (Luke 5:24 But that you may know that the Son of Man has authority on earth
to forgive sins.)
Matt 26 is another case where Jesus was accused of
blasphemy, this time because Jesus prophesied that at a future time, he would come
back from heaven in as glorified a position as God. Again the Jews were not
wrong in interpreting this to mean that he was claiming equality with God.
(Mat 26:64) “Yes,
it is as you say,” Jesus replied. “But I say to all of you: In the future you
will see the Son of Man sitting at the right hand of the Mighty One and coming
on the clouds of heaven.”
He accepted the title “God” when it was addressed to him
by his disciple, Thomas.
(John 20:28)
Thomas said to him, “My Lord and my God!”
Muslim response
Muslims have argued that there are many uses of the title “God”. This is true. It can refer to the devil, angels, believers, judges or messenger of God.
Christian reply
Let’s look at the context of the verse. Which category do you think Thomas is referring to? After he had doubted that Jesus could raise himself from the dead and Jesus proved to him that he can, is Thomas calling Jesus his devil, his angel, his fellow believer, judge or just a messenger? You see, these meanings are theoretical possibilities but we have to look at the context to see if they are in actuality possible meanings.
Christian reply
Again this is contrary to the text, which clearly says that Thomas said those words and addressed them to Jesus.
Still others have said that when Thomas uttered those words, they were for self-reproach. In other words, he was saying, “My God! What a fool I have been!”.
Christian reply
Such a statement may be commonplace in our present day,
but a Jew at that time would never dream of uttering the name of God in vain.
Even God-fearing men of today would not think of using God in this kind of
expression. No Muslim would utter, “My Allah! How could I have made this
mistake.” No Muslim would dare to utter such careless remarks invoking God’s
name in private, much less in front of a prophet of God.
Jesus
Christ who said: "I am the way, the truth, and the life: no man cometh to
the Father, but by me" (John 14:6).
Is Jesus referring to himself as only a messenger of God? John the Baptist was still around. Has John been arrested yet?
When Christians say they believe that Jesus is God, some ask: “How can a man become God?”
Of course it is impossible. Man can never become God. Jesus was not a man who became God. Jesus is God who came to earth to live with us as a human being. We need to reverse the question: “Can God choose to appear on earth for a period of time?” That answer has to be yes. God is almighty and He can do whatever He likes. In fact, He had appeared on earth to talk to Moses. Moses was not summoned to heaven to talk to God. God came down to talk to Moses.